That's not quite accurate. What the Court actually ruled is:
"A State's failure to protect an individual against private violence generally does not constitute a violation of the Due Process Clause, because the Clause imposes no duty on the State to provide members of the general public with adequate protective services."
The Due Process claim made was one of "substantive due process" and the court rejected it. Given Thomas's recent assertion that "any substantive due process decision is ‘demonstrably erroneous" I would expect the current court to rule the same way.
However, it also stated in the same
case:
"It may well be that, by voluntarily undertaking to protect Joshua against a danger it concededly played no part in creating, the State acquired a duty under state tort law to provide him with adequate protection against that danger." and "The claim here is based on the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, which, as we have said many times, does not transform every tort committed by a state actor into a constitutional violation."
So the craven actions of Uvalde's police farce may still be actionable under tort, contract, or even criminal law. Just not under Section 1983.