http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_firearm-related_death_rate
Homicide gun-related homicides in the US are listed as 3.6 per 100,000 population
in the UK .04 per 100,000 population...
The rate in the US is 90x higher... The obvious difference being the banning of most guns in the UK...
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When confronted with this fact, what is the "appropriate" defense?
I've tried researching violent crime rates in the UK vs. US and have seen numbers that range from UK has 5x the amount of violent crime, all the way down to equal to the US... apparently "violent crime" is categorized differently in each country making this calculation "impossible"
Someone help me out (with some "facts")
Homicide gun-related homicides in the US are listed as 3.6 per 100,000 population
in the UK .04 per 100,000 population...
The rate in the US is 90x higher... The obvious difference being the banning of most guns in the UK...
----------------------------
When confronted with this fact, what is the "appropriate" defense?
I've tried researching violent crime rates in the UK vs. US and have seen numbers that range from UK has 5x the amount of violent crime, all the way down to equal to the US... apparently "violent crime" is categorized differently in each country making this calculation "impossible"
Someone help me out (with some "facts")