I find it odd that the US Government finds that the minimum age somebody should be able to own a pistol is 21. Why is that? Could somebody please explain when, where, who, why this was put into law.
If a law abiding citizen is considered an adult at 18, then why is that when that same person goes to buy a handgun they are seen as a child for three more years? Seems hypocritical to me.
(I realize I've posted about this topic before, but I've worded it more clearly this time so that it can be answered more thoroughly, thanks)
-Chris
Someone will correct me if I'm wrong, but I'm pretty sure the
higher age restriction was probably part of the huge pile of shit known
as the Gun Control Act of 1968. GCA68 provided a wide range of
changes in federal gun laws. I would bet that limit (being 21) was
established as part of GCA68.
(Edit: According to this wiki page, it said this occured under FOPA 86, not
GCA-68.... not 100% sure of its accuracy, though. )
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gun_Control_Act#Prohibited_Persons
No, it certainly doesn't make any sense, especially not in light of the
fact that there are several states that allow 18 year olds to legally
possess handguns and the ammunition for them. It also really
doesn't make any sense considering that most (if not all?) states
allow 18 year olds to own rifles and shotguns, which are weapons
typically more powerful than like 99% of the handguns out
there.
Since the feds could only make laws WRT guns that "effect interstate
commerce" this is why the prohibition is only binding on federal
licensees (FFLs) and not private sales between citizens. For most practical
purposes though, it is a functional blanket ban from anyone under 21 buying
a handgun or "handgun ammo" from a typical commercial dealer.
-Mike
