I've had that argument with a very liberal family members friend at Christmas one year that "people" meant a collective and when I asked "Really, then why didn't the framers just use the word "militia" again? If that's really what the framers meant they would have just used militia again instead of people." Crickets.
'People' is found in the 1st:
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the
people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.
Of Course the 2nd
In the 4th:
The right of the
people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
In the 10th:
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the
people.
Does "people" change meaning depending on the amendment it's in? Would they want it only to apply to the 'collective' in the 1st and 4th? Wouldn't think so.