Question on The Second Amendment

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daceman63

I have a question for you legal eagles or history buffs, but anyone is encouraged to answer as this is for all of us........I have not studied the constitution nor the bill of rights. However, another thread had me look up the constitution for reference. But in looking at the first ten amendments "The Bill of Rights" and then the next 15 or so I noticed something......none of the first 10 have any articles attached.


For example: "AMENDMENT XIII
Passed by Congress January 31, 1865. Ratified December 6, 1865.

Note: A portion of Article IV, section 2, of the Constitution was superseded by the 13th amendment.

Section 1.
Neither slavery nor involuntary servitude, except as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted, shall exist within the United States, or any place subject to their jurisdiction.

Section 2.
Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation."


The last section of each amendment beyond the first 10 have what is stated here in section 2.




So I asked why.

So, probably like many times before I will post the second amendment her;

"Amendment II

A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."


If I interpret this correctly there was no out for congress to change this due to the lack of articles stating as much as in future amendments.

The anti's argument is that they were referring to the black powder guns of their day and not to the assault sstyle rifles and .50 caliber guns that we have today.

Here is my question.....

Were the architects of "The Bill of Rights" forward thinking enough to not allow futer congress' to change this theorizing that advancements in technology would bring more sophisticated firearms and that the people would have the right to bear the arms of their time to meet any opposing militia knowing now that muskets cannot compete against AK's and AR's?

If your answer to my question is yes, then why have pro-gunners not used this as a defense of our second amendment rights?

If I am missing something please post that as well.
 
Here's my take on this.

The first ten amendments, which we collectively refer to as the Bill of Rights, are something of an anomaly. Many people think, incorrectly, that these amendments grant us certain rights - nothing could be further from the truth. The Constitution makes clear that all rights initially belong to the people and the purpose of the Constitution is to cede certain limited rights to the government. If something is not clearly granted to the Government in the Constitution then the Government does not have that right - it remains with the people, or with the States, as long as the State Constitution cedes the right from the people to the government in the same manner.

In spite of that clarity, the Framers in their infinite wisdom thought it prudent to reiterate the already established principle of "whatever is not explicitly granted to the Government remains with the people" for certain rights that they viewed as fundamental, as in the sense of "a foundation," for the establishment and perpetuation of a democracy. Those first ten amendments to the Constitution are the Bill of Rights. Chief among these was free speech, and that is properly the basis of the First Amendment. We all know what they thought was the second most important right to restate.

Later amendments generally cede additional rights to the Government, and/or clarify the powers of Government as previously established, and it is these amendments that need to be augmented with the "Congress may pass laws, etc." language. No such language is necessary for the first ten because they are only restating fundamental rights that the people have never ceded to the Government.

With regard to the other issue, it is clear from the Federalist papers that address the RKBA question (I forget the numbers at the moment, but they are worth looking up and reading) that the purpose of the 2nd Amendment had nothing to do with hunting, target shooting, or protection of life and property. It had everything to do with the ability of the people to overthrow a government trending toward tyranny. As such, it envisioned that the people would have access to the same individually operated weapons that the military had access to - in that time it was Brown Bess muskets, today that would be fully automatic M16s. To the extent that right has been eroded, our Government violates the Constitution upon which it was established.
 
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If the second amendment does not protect modern personal weapons, the first and the fourth do not protect modern, electronic forms of communication or virtual property.
 
The part of the 2nd amendment that I was always most curious about was the use of the word militia; I think that what the framers would call a militia is what we'd call a national guard.
 
I believe that militia is defined by the U.S.C and that it is definitely not the national guard, as there is a separate section devoted to that.

B
 
I believe that militia is defined by the U.S.C and that it is definitely not the national guard, as there is a separate section devoted to that.

B
But at the time the constitution was written, that's what militia meant... right?
 
It doesn't matter what their, or your, definitition of a militia was or is. The right is guaranteed to the people, not to the militia - the framers were not casual about their language and in fact argued for hours, if not days, about subtle nuances of meaning. The fact that the right is stated as that of the people is not without significance and is certainly not a casual oversight.

The term "the people" is used throughout the Constitution and elsewhere and is never, ever used to convey the meaning of a "collective" right, but rather specifically and intentionally is intended to mean a personal right of each and every one of us. The interpretation of the language of the 2nd Amendment as a collective right is relatively recent and can be authoritatively traced to the first half of the 20th century as an invented argument to argue against individual ownership of firearms.
 
Afaik

I believe that at the time of our Founding Fathers, the "militia" was regarded as all able bodied males. The militia they speak of, is WE, the People. We have the power (as intended by the framers), over the government, b/c we have arms. It is meant to keep balance & order in our society. The National Guard was created MANY years later, & is not the militia that 2A refers to.

I'm probably not as good at explaining this issue as others are. May I recommend reading some articles on the Second Amendment. There are some good ones on http://www.usconcealedcarry.com/index.cfm?affID=uscca.
 
The part of the 2nd amendment that I was always most curious about was the use of the word militia; I think that what the framers would call a militia is what we'd call a national guard.

Then you've done little, if any, reading on the subject. [slap]

The original Militia Act was written in 1792 and has not changed much since its codification as 10 USC 311; virtually the same language is found in Mass. law; MGL c. 33, secs. 2 and 3. EACH define the "militia" as all able-bodied citizens (originally MALES) " between the ages of seventeen and forty-five," when called to service. Contrast that with NG enlistment papers and terms of service. [rolleyes]

The NATIONAL Guard, contrary to its specious representations, is NOT the militia the FF created. It is an adjunct of the Federal military; it uses the same weapons, uniforms, tactics and is inherently designed and trained to integrate with the standing forces upon mobilization by presidential order. Note also that the NG is barely a century old, having been created to address (yet again) the leadership and logistic difficulties the state militias presented in the Spanish-American War.

If you are truly so naive as to believe the governor commands the Massachusetts National Guard (now there's an oxymoron), talk to Mike Dukakis. He tried to withhold the Mass NG from military exercises in South America and was slapped down in short order by a SCOTUS decision.
 
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Folks: there are some exceedingly well researched and well written books and law review articles on this subject. It is not as simple as it sounds, and, while some of these things are not light reading, I urge anyone who wishes to inform himself about the issue to read first and speculate second.

Now, at the risk of violating my own rule about trying to simplify what isn't simple, the "problem" with the Second Amendment lies in its grammar. In particular, the amendment is prefaced with a dangling participial phrase, the import of which is ambiguous.

Consider these two sentences:

"The book that I borrowed from you yesterday is on the second shelf." [A]

"The book, which I borrowed from you yesterday, is on the second shelf."

Except for one word (and often the distinction between "which" and "that" is not observed, so you might have identical words), the sentences are identical, yet their meaning is quite different.

In sentence [A], the clause "that I borrowed from you yesterday" is a necessary part of the definition of "book." The subject of the sentence is not "the book" but rather "the book that I borrowed from you yesterday."

In sentence , the clause "which I borrowed . . . " is consider appositional. It is descriptive but not restrictive of the object "book." As used by the writer, no further definition of book is required to give his sentence meaning.

The Second Amendment contains an introductory modifier ("A well-regulated militia . . ."), followed by an operative declaratory statement ("the right of the people . . . shall not be infringed"). The question of the moment is: is the modifier restrictive or descriptive?

The anti's contend that the modifier is restrictive, and therefore the declaration has to be interpreted and limited to its purpose of "regulating" a militia. The pro's contend that the modifier is non-restrictive, and therefore the meaning of the amendment cannot be less than if the modifier were deleted. Unfortunately, the authors of the amendment were grammatically sloppy, and so one has to resort to what is known as "parol evidence" (materials outside of the words themselves) to try to figure out their meaning. And that is where the tedious and arduous scholarship comes in.

(By the way, the word "regulated" does not mean "controlled" in the modern day use of "regulation." At the time the amendment was written and in this context, "regulated" meant "equipped," with perhaps a further implication of "equipped in a more or less consistent way.")

Here is an interesting tid-bit. The Supreme Court decided, in a case called United States v. Miller, the constitutional validity of the provision of the 1934 National Firearms Act that outlawed (for the most part) the private ownership and possession of full-auto weapons. Its particarly target was the M1921 Thompson. At the time, the Thompson had not been adopted by the United States military. The rationale of the Court was that, because the Second Amendment was designed to foster citizen possession of military weapons, it was not violated by prohibiting a weapon that had never been used by the military! Note how inconsisten this approach (and Miller is often cited by the antis) is with the notion of banning "assault rifles" while preserving the right to own "sporting" weapons!

As I said, this is neither a simple nor an intuitive subject.
 
"Amendment II

A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."


So we cannot infer that everything prior to "shall not be ingfringed" is included?

1. A well regulated militia shall not be infringed. (This is a sentence)

2. being necessary to the security of a free State shall not be infringed. (This is not)

3. A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, shall not be infringed. (This is a sentence)

4. The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infinged. (This is a sentence)

5. The right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infinged. (This is fragmented - notice the comma)

Still not a lot of difference between 4 and 5....yes or no?
 
I'm not to trying and show my lack of law savvyness, and in truth that I'm not an English major, but I do believe that Jefferson stated (correct me if I'm wrong) that the constitution was written so that the COMMON MAN could read it and understand it. By using this as a fact, ask 10 random, everyday, average people to read it and have them tell you what it says. Let that be the end of it. I find that the first 6 are specifically there to control the government, not the people, but that's just me. You can cut it up anyway you want, but that's the way it was written. Just my 2 cents.
 
from what little I have read in the past my interpritation is as follows:


A well regulated Militia, [well equiped]
being necessary to the security of a free State, [because it is necessary to remain a free state and protect us from our government]
the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed. [We have the right to arm ourselves and the government can't take that right away]

If the national guard is to be called the militia it must be controled by the people, and all able body citizens would be part of it. I'd like to see the NG stand up for our rights when the gov't comes to take our guns away. Quite teh opposite I bet it will be the NG going door to door taking them.
 
I'm not to trying and show my lack of law savvyness, and in truth that I'm not an English major, but I do believe that Jefferson stated (correct me if I'm wrong) that the constitution was written so that the COMMON MAN could read it and understand it.

Sadly, the "common man" in this country was at one time considerably better read and more literate than he is now. Even everyday laborers had some exposure to classic literature. Have you ever read some of the letters home from common rank-and-file soldiers in the Civil War? (and, yes, of course I know that was some 80 years or so after the constitution was drafted) It's really pretty frightening how the educational system has failed us as a society.

I find that the first 6 are specifically there to control the government, not the people, but that's just me. You can cut it up anyway you want, but that's the way it was written. Just my 2 cents.

The entire document is specifically there to control the government - it has no other purpose.
 
The Supreme Court decided, in a case called United States v. Miller, the constitutional validity of the provision of the 1934 National Firearms Act that outlawed (for the most part) the private ownership and possession of full-auto weapons. Its particarly target was the M1921 Thompson. At the time, the Thompson had not been adopted by the United States military. The rationale of the Court was that, because the Second Amendment was designed to foster citizen possession of military weapons, it was not violated by prohibiting a weapon that had never been used by the military!

The Supreme Court made no such "decision."

First, the gun in question was a short shotgun; not a Thompson.

Second, because the issue had not been raised at the trial, it could not be addressed on appeal. Ergo, there was no "decision" on that issue.

Miller has been abused by the anti-gunners, who ignore the court's invocation of the real definition of "militia," the Militia Act of 1792.
 
Wow; I’m embarrassed (at least in part).

True: Miller did involve a short-barreled shotgun, not a Thompson. I did this from memory, having researched the issue some years ago, and I’ll bet there was a similar case involving a Thompson.

However, putting this aside, I believe my point remains valid.

First, I don’t think you can contend that the pronouncements in Miller were entirely dicta, and that the holding is limited to the fact that Miller had waived his claim. The fact is that that the District Court below had sustained Miller’s legal argument and dismissed the indictment against him, and the Supreme Court reversed that dismissal. As a result, the holding of Miller has to be considered on the merits.

Second, the critical language in Miller, I believe, is this:

“In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a `shotgun having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length’ at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense. Aymette v. State, 2 Humphreys (Tenn.) 154, 158.” 307 U.S. at 176.

And:

“The Constitution as originally adopted granted to the Congress power -- `To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions; To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress.’ With obvious purpose to assure the continuation and render possible the effectiveness of such forces the declaration and guarantee of the Second Amendment were made. It must be interpreted and applied with that end in view.” Id. (emphasis added.

Note the following:

A) If the declaratory part of the Second Amendment were unqualified (that is to say, if you could ignore the preamble), then the only issue would have been: Was the short-barreled shotgun a firearm?

B) That the shotgun was a firearm was not contested.

C) The dismissal of the indictment was reversed, not affirmed.

D) Therefore (at least per this decision), the Second Amendment is not quite that broad.

Now, my point was not to defend Miller as being good law, but only to point out the irony that today the anti’s are most ardent about suppressing military-style weapons (which, they claim, have no “sporting purpose”), while the legal authority they rely upon would have provided military-style weapons greater, not lesser, Second Amendment protection.
 
Apparently something got daceman thinking about this - this is a good thing. If you want to read further on other people's opinions you can read what the founding fathers said about the 2nd amendment by reading the Federalist Papers and what other people have to say about it:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution

http://www.lewrockwell.com/orig2/gun-arch.html

"To preserve liberty, it is essential that the whole body of the people always possess arms, and be taught alike, especially when young, how to use them." (Richard Henry Lee, Virginia delegate to the Continental Congress, initiator of the Declaration of Independence, and member of the first Senate, which passed the Bill of Rights.)

"The great object is that every man be armed . . . Everyone who is able may have a gun." (Patrick Henry, in the Virginia Convention on the ratification of the Constitution.)

"The advantage of being armed . . . the Americans possess over the people of all other nations . . . Notwithstanding the military establishments in the several Kingdoms of Europe, which are carried as far as the public resources will bear, the governments are afraid to trust the people with arms." (James Madison, author of the Bill of Rights, in his Federalist Paper No. 46.)

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." (Second Amendment to the Constitution.)





For some further reading I would suggest Vin Suprynowicz's "Send in the Waco Killers" and "The Ballad of Carl Drega" (the first one is better if you have to make a choice between them)

http://www.amazon.com/Send-Waco-Killers-Movement-1993-1998/dp/0967025907

http://www.amazon.com/Ballad-Carl-D...0967025923/ref=pd_sim_b_3/002-3165900-8557613
 
Apparently something got daceman thinking about this - this is a good thing. If you want to read further on other people's opinions you can read what the founding fathers said about the 2nd amendment by reading the Federalist Papers and what other people have to say about it:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Amendment_to_the_United_States_Constitution

http://www.lewrockwell.com/orig2/gun-arch.html

"To preserve liberty, it is essential that the whole body of the people always possess arms, and be taught alike, especially when young, how to use them." (Richard Henry Lee, Virginia delegate to the Continental Congress, initiator of the Declaration of Independence, and member of the first Senate, which passed the Bill of Rights.)

"The great object is that every man be armed . . . Everyone who is able may have a gun." (Patrick Henry, in the Virginia Convention on the ratification of the Constitution.)

"The advantage of being armed . . . the Americans possess over the people of all other nations . . . Notwithstanding the military establishments in the several Kingdoms of Europe, which are carried as far as the public resources will bear, the governments are afraid to trust the people with arms." (James Madison, author of the Bill of Rights, in his Federalist Paper No. 46.)

"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." (Second Amendment to the Constitution.)





For some further reading I would suggest Vin Suprynowicz's "Send in the Waco Killers" and "The Ballad of Carl Drega" (the first one is better if you have to make a choice between them)

http://www.amazon.com/Send-Waco-Killers-Movement-1993-1998/dp/0967025907

http://www.amazon.com/Ballad-Carl-D...0967025923/ref=pd_sim_b_3/002-3165900-8557613

Thank you for the recomendations. "Send in the Waco Killers" was recomended in another thread too. I am planning on picking that up but I will get both as I have a renewed interest in this topic.
 
I'm not a historical scholar, however there are two points I wanted to insert. First - "well regulated militia" - it didn't only mean well equiped, it also meant well drilled. Back in those days, farmers, carpenters, store keeps, etc. etc. etc., were all part of the militia. It was all men, between the ages of 17 and 45 (as Scriv said, although I think it might have gone past the 45) that made up the town's or city's militia. They usually met once a month to drill.

Second - the anti's argue that "the right of the people to keep and bear arms" means the "National Guard". Well, the NG wasn't even invented yet when that was written, #1, and #2, if that's the case, then that's the only one of the BofR's that doesn't mean the People (it does in every other one), which is absolute hogwash.
 
From
http://www.fff.org/freedom/1095e.asp:
What the Second Amendment Means
by Sheldon Richman, October 1995

The decline of education in the United States may be reflected in the high correlation between the amount of formal schooling a person has and his inability to understand the following words: "A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."

The radio and television talk shows have been raging in recent years with discussions of the Second Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. The debate is over whether that amendment protects private, individual ownership of firearms or whether it means something else. Typically, people who favor gun ownership take the first position, although some legal scholars who do not like gun ownership reluctantly agree that the amendment protects it nonetheless. Opponents of guns argue that the amendment protects only the right of the states to form militias or National Guard units. As the American Civil Liberties Union of Southern California has put it, "The original intent of the Second Amendment was to protect the right of states to maintain militias." Dennis Henigan of Handgun Control, Inc., says the amendment is "about the distribution of military power in a society between the federal government and the state. That's all they [the Framers] were talking about." As he put it elsewhere, "The Second Amendment guaranteed the right of the people to be armed as part of a 'well regulated' militia, ensuring that the arming of the state militia not depend on the whim of the central government." (Emphasis added.)

Thus, we have diametrically opposed individualist and collectivist interpretations of the amendment. People on both sides of the issue agree, however, that the sentence was not well written. I disagree. A knowledge of English syntax and vocabulary — and nothing else — should be sufficient to determine that the amendment protects an individualist right to firearms.

Approaching the sentence as grammarians, we immediately note two things: the simple subject is "right" and the full predicate is "shall not be infringed." This, in other words, is a sentence about a right that is already assumed to exist. It does not say, "The people shall have a right to keep and bear arms." The amendment recognizes , but does not grant, the right. As the U.S. Supreme Court wrote in the late 19th century, the right to keep and bear arms is independent of the Constitution.

That has important implications for the opening militia phrase, which confuses so many people. Gun opponents often argue that if the opening phrase does not apply — if, say, the standing army takes the place of the militia — then the right to keep and bear arms is nullified. That view would require a willingness by the framers of the Constitution to agree to this statement: If a well-regulated militia is not necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall (or may) be infringed. But it is absurd to think that the Framers would embrace that statement. Their political philosophy would not permit them to speak of a permissible infringement of rights. In their view, individuals, joining together to form a political unit, delegate rights and powers to government. But the people do not — cannot — consent to an infringement of their rights — such consent, logically, would make no sense. The term infringement implies lack of consent.

As a matter of logic, it is an error to believe that nullification of the opening phrase would nullify the main clause. Imagine a long-lost constitution that stated: "The earth being flat, the right of the people to abstain from ocean travel shall not be infringed." Would anyone seriously argue that discovery of the earth's spherical shape would justify compelling people to sail?

The advocates of gun control maintain that the amendment merely affirms the states' right to form state militias. You want to own a gun? they ask. Join the National Guard. That view dissolves under even casual analysis. First, James Madison's amendment says "the right of the people." If he meant states, why didn't he say so? The Bill of Rights, in fact, never ascribes rights to states. On the other hand, the people are mentioned in the First, Fourth, Ninth, and Tenth Amendments, as well as the Second. Surely the Framers did not mean to say that states have a right to peaceably assemble and be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects. The states are mentioned in the Tenth Amendment, but in terms of powers, not rights. Moreover, that amendment names both the people and the states, indicating that the Framers wrote "states" when they meant states and "people" when they meant people.

The meaning that the gun controllers impose on the amendment simply cannot be squared with the Framers' syntax and choice of words. If their concern had been to keep the national government from limiting the states' power to form militias, they might have written: "A well-regulated militia being necessary for the security of a free state, the power of the States to form and control militias shall not be limited." (That, however, would have conflicted with other clauses in Article I of the Constitution.) The main clause of my revision keeps the focus on states and militias, where the gun controllers say it should be. In contrast, Madison's main clause focuses on the people's right to keep and bear arms. How can it be reasonably concluded that the amendment means anything but that the people have an unconditional right to own and carry arms?

To see this more clearly, consider that Madison's original draft reversed the order of the elements: "The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well armed and well regulated militia being the best security of a free country." That sentence implies that the way to achieve the well-armed and well-regulated militia necessary to the security of a free state is to recognize the right of people to own guns. In other words, without individual freedom to own and carry firearms, there can be no militia. ("Well regulated," Alexander Hamilton wrote in the Federalist Papers , meant well drilled and disciplined.)

How do we know that the "well regulated militia" is defined in terms of an armed populace and not vice versa? The syntax of the sentence tells us. Madison and his colleagues in the House of Representatives chose to put the militia reference into a dependent phrase. They picked the weakest possible construction by using the participle "being" instead of writing, say, "Since a well regulated militia is necessary. . . ." Their syntax keeps the militia idea from stealing the thunder of what is to come later in the sentence. Moreover, the weak form indicates that the need for a militia was offered not as a reason (or condition) for prohibiting infringement of the stated right but rather as the reason for enumerating the right in the Bill of Rights. (It could have been left implicit in the Ninth Amendment, which affirms unenumerated rights.)

The House reversed the elements of Madison's amendment. That changed the emphasis, but not the meaning. In fact, the reversal made it a better sentence for the Bill of Rights. As adopted, the amendment begins by quickly putting on the record the most important reason for its inclusion in the Bill of Rights but without dwelling on the matter; that's what the weak participle, "being," accomplishes. The sentence then moves on to the main event: "the right of the people to keep and bear arms." The Framers correctly intuited that in a Bill of Rights, the last thing the reader should have ringing in his mind's ear is the absolute prohibition on infringement of the natural right to own guns.

The lack of conflict between the militia and individual ownership of guns is made all the more clear by the fact that in the Framers' day, the militia comprised, as George Mason put it, "the whole people." Thus, the amendment, rather than being muddled or contradictory, is elegant and appropriate to its task.

Finally, even if we grant the gun controllers' arguments about the Second Amendment, they still would not get where they want to go. In their view, the amendment authorizes the creation of state militias. But that implies no prohibition on private gun ownership. And the Ninth Amendment says, "The enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people." So the people have unenumerated rights. By what warrant can we exclude from those rights the right to keep and bear arms?

Mr. Richman is senior editor at the Cato Institute in Washington, D.C., and the author of Separating School & State: How to Liberate America's Families , published by The Future of Freedom Foundation.
 
The only mistake in the above article is the word "may" in the first sentence.

It is undeniably true.....there is no MAY about it.
 
The only mistake in the above article is the word "may" in the first sentence.

It is undeniably true.....there is no MAY about it.

Please don't take this as an insult, because I don't mean it like that - but your response pretty much details the point the writer was trying to make. The meaning of the word "may" when used in the sentence the way the author wrote it is closer to the words "can" or "is" than the way you are thinking about it:

may1 (mā)
aux.v., Past tense might (mīt).
To be allowed or permitted to: May I take a swim? Yes, you may.
Used to indicate a certain measure of likelihood or possibility: It may rain this afternoon.
Used to express a desire or fervent wish: Long may he live!
Used to express contingency, purpose, or result in clauses introduced by that or so that: expressing ideas so that the average person may understand.
To be obliged; must. Used in statutes, deeds, and other legal documents. See Usage Note at can1.
[Middle English, to be able, from Old English mæg, first and third person sing. of magan, to be strong, be able.]
 
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